tommac

2010-Apr-23, 03:26 PM

In single dimentional space i I have a gravitational source X, and 3 items accelerating towards X, at a distance, would the tidal forces in both directions be equal?

X----------------------------------------------------------------------------1----2----3

as 1,2,3 accelerate towards X ( lets say X is a black hole or neutron star )

you will have a situation where 2 will see 1 accelerate away and 2 will see 3 accelerate away in the opposite direction correct?

2 will see 1 accelerate away faster than 3 but at a distance would these be approximate say within a 1% margin of error?

To calculate the tidal acceleration do I take the difference of acceleration between X and 1 and X and 2 and that will produce the relative acceleration of 1 and 2?

To calculate the acceleration between a point and x would the formula be:

G( M + m ) / r^2

lets assume that M is much more massive than m so we have GM/r^2

so we should have:

GM(r1)^2 - GM/(r2)^2

that is the difference in acceleration correct?

GM ( 1/r1^2 - 1/r2^2 )

if r1= 100000 and r2 = 100001

then would

a=GM ( 1/10000000000 - 1/10000200001) =~ GM * 2 e -15

if r3 = 100002 then would

a =~ GM * 2 e -15

also ... so my question is per my caclulations is that the margin of error between the two accelerations is less than .0001% is that a correct assumption?

X----------------------------------------------------------------------------1----2----3

as 1,2,3 accelerate towards X ( lets say X is a black hole or neutron star )

you will have a situation where 2 will see 1 accelerate away and 2 will see 3 accelerate away in the opposite direction correct?

2 will see 1 accelerate away faster than 3 but at a distance would these be approximate say within a 1% margin of error?

To calculate the tidal acceleration do I take the difference of acceleration between X and 1 and X and 2 and that will produce the relative acceleration of 1 and 2?

To calculate the acceleration between a point and x would the formula be:

G( M + m ) / r^2

lets assume that M is much more massive than m so we have GM/r^2

so we should have:

GM(r1)^2 - GM/(r2)^2

that is the difference in acceleration correct?

GM ( 1/r1^2 - 1/r2^2 )

if r1= 100000 and r2 = 100001

then would

a=GM ( 1/10000000000 - 1/10000200001) =~ GM * 2 e -15

if r3 = 100002 then would

a =~ GM * 2 e -15

also ... so my question is per my caclulations is that the margin of error between the two accelerations is less than .0001% is that a correct assumption?