View Full Version : Pamela Said...

EvilEye

2008-Jan-10, 01:14 AM

"If the results aren't repeatable, it isn't science."

That means, that up to now, we do not exist scientifically.

No other planet under our scrutiny has been able to replicate what we have on this planet.

Now THERE is a thought.

So what about Drake's Equation?

(I know...I know) :hand:

missmoo

2008-Jan-10, 03:11 AM

I believe this was meant as a comment about scientific hypotheses..

but then again, if you've read "The Hitchhiker's Guide to the Galaxy" maybe the earth *is* a scientific experiment, in which case you are right. We don't exist.

:P

hhEb09'1

2008-Jan-10, 03:19 AM

I checked my pants this morning to see if I exist, and I'm going to check'em again tomorrow morning... :)

aurora

2008-Jan-10, 09:58 PM

Well, we don't really know what other kinds of life exist out there, if any, because our sample of planets with life is currently = 1. We can study the life we have available to us, and hypothesize about other kinds.

Likewise our sample of planets that have active plate tectonics = 1, so our conclusions about what starts and stops that activity are somewhat speculative.

bort

2008-Jan-10, 10:31 PM

How about "I think, therefore I am"?

EvilEye

2008-Jan-10, 10:48 PM

It was really only a joke. I'm glad most got it.

The thought behind it was "Throwing out the obvious with the bathwater"

llatpog

2008-Jan-11, 06:52 PM

If we really think about it...mathmatically...none of use really exist.

Any infininate number divided by a finite number is equal to zero.

If the universe is infinate...and there are an infinite number of planets...but we are the only planey that we know of to have life...then an infinite number of planets with a finite number with life means...

well...we dont exist (Thanks Hitchhikers guide!)

sk8rpinoi32

2008-Feb-13, 09:24 PM

I have to admit that is somewhat wrong. Especially in the realm of quantum mechanics. Where even after an experiment, it's questionable if the experiment even occurred and if duplicated will that experiment exist as well, let alone would the same outcome occur.

fourmanifold

2008-Feb-21, 12:17 PM

If we really think about it...mathmatically...none of use really exist.

Any infininate number divided by a finite number is equal to zero.

Really? I think you're wrong.

Any infinite "number" divided by a finite number is equal to infinity.

(i.e. infinity/x = infinity, for any positive real number x, including zero)

It's basic calculus.

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